Here's something I've been pondering over the last few days...
When you question a christian on why they believe something (eg. Noah's ark held two of every single animal in the world) after much blustering they they will often assume the fall back position and say that it is because they have faith.
If you then ask where this concept of faith comes from they will answer 'the bible'.
If you then question how a book written, edited and collated by humans could be God's word, they still say that you need to have faith.
This seems like a circular argument to me.
I believe the concept of 'blind faith' HAS come from the bible, but that the bible is flawed and can not be taken literally, hence casting doubt on the requirement for faith whatsoever...
Does this make sense or am I dribbling? (I have partaken in some cleansing Coopers Pale this evening, so my judgement could be a little impaired!!).
D.